The Three Basic Types Of Subnetworks Are ____, Packet-switched, And Broadcast.a. Multicast C. Circuit-switchedb. (2024)

Computers And Technology High School


Answer 1

The three basic types of subnetworks are unicast, multicast, and broadcast.

a. Unicast: Unicast refers to a network communication method where data is sent from one sender to a single recipient. In this type of subnetwork, the data is transmitted to a specific destination address, and only the intended recipient receives and processes the data. Unicast is the most common type of communication in IP networks, where data packets are individually addressed to a particular device on the network.

b. Multicast: Multicast is a network communication method where data is sent from one sender to a group of recipients. In this type of subnetwork, a single copy of the data is transmitted, but it is received by multiple devices that have joined the multicast group. Multicast is efficient for delivering data to multiple recipients simultaneously, reducing network traffic and conserving bandwidth.

c. Broadcast: Broadcast is a network communication method where data is sent from one sender to all devices on the network. In this type of subnetwork, the data packet is sent to a broadcast address, and every device on the network receives and processes the data. Broadcast communication is useful for scenarios where data needs to be disseminated to all devices, such as network discovery protocols or system-wide announcements.

It's important to note that these three types of subnetworks represent different methods of communication and have distinct characteristics. Understanding these types is essential for designing and managing network infrastructure effectively. Each type serves different purposes and has specific advantages and considerations, depending on the intended use case and network requirements.

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Related Questions

learning curves do have limitations. one key caution when using a learning curves is:


Learning curves have limitations, and one key caution when using them is ensuring the accurate representation of a specific learning process. They may not always accurately predict future performance or skill acquisition due to various factors.

A learning curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between experience and proficiency in a certain skill or process. As experience increases, individuals or organizations typically become more efficient and make fewer mistakes. However, learning curves have certain limitations that can affect their reliability.

One major limitation is that learning curves often assume a consistent rate of learning. In reality, the rate at which people learn can vary significantly depending on individual differences, learning methods, and the complexity of the task. Moreover, learning curves might not account for plateaus or periods of stagnation, where progress seems to halt temporarily before picking up again.

Another limitation is that learning curves might not consider external factors that can impact the learning process, such as changes in technology, resource availability, or market conditions. These factors can significantly influence the rate of learning and the eventual mastery of a skill or process.

In summary, when using learning curves to predict future performance or skill acquisition, it is essential to be cautious and aware of their limitations. They might not always provide an accurate representation of the learning process due to factors such as individual differences, the complexity of the task, and external influences.

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a brain-imaging method that takes computer-controlled x-rays of the brain is called


A brain-imaging method that takes computer-controlled x-rays of the brain is called computed tomography (CT).

Why is computed tomography (CT) important?

CT scans can be used to detect sickness or damage in different parts of the body. For example, CT has evolved into an effective screening technique for detecting potential cancers or lesions in the abdomen. When different sorts of cardiac illness or anomalies are suspected, a CT scan of the heart may be recommended.

CT scans may give comprehensive pictures of various interior body structures, such as internal organs, blood arteries, and bones. They can be used to identify illnesses such as bone damage, internal organ injuries, blood flow issues, stroke, and cancer.

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a program that loads an executable program into main memory is called a(n) ____.


A program that loads an executable program into main memory is called a(n) "loader" as they play a crucial role in ensuring that programs are loaded correctly and run smoothly.

A loader is a program that loads an executable program into main memory so that it can be executed by the computer's CPU. The loader is responsible for allocating memory, resolving external references, and performing other necessary tasks to prepare the program for execution.

In computer science, a loader is a program that loads another program (usually an executable) into memory and prepares it for execution. The loader performs several important tasks, such as allocating memory for the program, resolving external references, and initializing data structures. Once the program has been loaded into memory, the loader hands control over to the operating system or the program itself, allowing it to begin executing. Loaders are an essential part of the process of running programs on a computer, and they play a crucial role in ensuring that programs are loaded correctly and run smoothly.

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2. open the totalfees query and add a calculated field that sums the registrationfee field values and the annualfee field values. assign the alias totalfees to the calculated field. save the query


Add calculated field named "totalfees" query that sums "registrationfee" and "annualfee" fields and save the query.

What steps should be followed to add a calculated field that sums up the values and then save the query?

To add a calculated field that sums the `registrationfee` and `annualfee` field values in the `totalfees` query and assign the alias `totalfees` to the calculated field, follow these steps:

1. Open Microsoft Access and open the `totalfees` query.

2. In the query design view, click on the `View` menu and select `Datasheet View`.

3. Click on the `Click to Add` column in the last column of the query design grid to add a new field.

4. In the `Field` row of the new field, enter a name for the calculated field, such as `TotalFees`.

5. In the `Table` row of the new field, enter the following expression in the cell:


6. Press `Enter` to save the expression and calculate the field values.

7. Right-click on the header of the new field and select `Properties`.

8. In the `Alias` property, enter `TotalFees` as the alias for the calculated field.

9. Save the query by clicking on the `Save` button in the `Quick Access Toolbar` or pressing `Ctrl+S`.

The `totalfees` query now includes a calculated field named `TotalFees` that sums the values of the `registrationfee` and `annualfee` fields for each record in the query results.

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two of the more commonly used _____ are microsoft office and openoffice


Two of the more commonly used office suites are microsoft office and OpenOffice

What is Microsoft Office?

Microsoft Office is a suite of office applications developed by Microsoft Corporation which includes Word Excel PowerPoint and other tools

OpenOffice on the other hand, is a free and open source office suite that includes similar applications such as Writer Calc and Impress.

Both software suites are commonly used for office work, document editing and other tasks

however Microsoft Office is more widely used in many industries and organizations due to. its popularity and features.

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Select the operations master role that is responsible for providing backward compatibility with Windows NT servers configured as Windows NT backup domain controllers or member servers:​
a. ​Infrastructure master
b. ​Domain naming master
c. ​RID master
d. ​PDC emulator master


The operations master role responsible for providing backward compatibility with Windows NT servers configured as Windows NT backup domain controllers or member servers is the PDC emulator master.

So, the correct answer is D.

This role is crucial in maintaining a smooth transition from an NT-based domain to a newer Active Directory domain.

The PDC emulator master is responsible for several critical functions, such as time synchronization, password changes, and group policy updates.

It also provides compatibility with legacy NT servers and ensures that authentication requests from these servers are handled properly.

It is essential to have a properly functioning PDC emulator master in an Active Directory environment to avoid any disruptions in service and ensure backward compatibility.

Hence, the correct answer is D.

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for the ipv6 header traffic class field, what function does the precedence field serve?


In the IPv6 header, the precedence field in the Traffic Class serves the function of providing priority or importance levels for traffic classification.

The Traffic Class field in the IPv6 header is a 6-bit field that is used to indicate the desired treatment or priority of a packet. Within the Traffic Class field, the 3 bits at the most significant end are designated as the precedence field.

The precedence field in the Traffic Class allows for the classification and prioritization of IPv6 packets based on their importance or priority level. It assigns different levels of precedence to packets, indicating their relative priority for handling by network devices and routers.

The precedence values assigned to packets can be used by routers to prioritize certain types of traffic over others, ensuring that packets with higher precedence receive preferential treatment in terms of forwarding and processing.

The precedence field in the Traffic Class is similar to the Type of Service (ToS) field in IPv4, which also served a similar purpose of providing priority levels for traffic classification and handling.

In conclusion, the precedence field in the IPv6 header's Traffic Class serves the function of assigning priority or importance levels to packets, allowing for the classification and prioritization of traffic in the IPv6 network. It enables routers and network devices to handle packets with different levels of precedence accordingly, ensuring efficient and prioritized delivery of IPv6 packets based on their assigned importance or priority.

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the code that follows border-style: solid none; means that the box should have


the code "border-style: solid none;" means that the box should have a solid border on the top, right, and bottom sides, but no border on the left side. To give a more detailed explanation, the "border-style" property is used to specify the style of the border of an HTML element. The value "solid" sets a solid border style, while "none" removes the border completely. So, in the given code, the "solid" value is applied to the top, right, and bottom sides, while the "none" value is applied to the left side, resulting in a box with a solid border on three sides and no border on one side.

Overall, the long answer is that the "border-style" property allows you to control the appearance of the border of an HTML element, and the specific value used in the code determines the style of the border on each side of the element.
the code "border-style: solid none;" means that the box should have: A solid border on the top and bottom, and no border on the left and right sides.

In CSS, the "border-style" property is used to set the style of a border. The given code specifies two values: "solid" and "none." The first value applies to the top and bottom borders, while the second value applies to the left and right borders. When using the "border-style: solid none;" code in a CSS file or style attribute, it ensures that the element it is applied to will have a solid border at the top and bottom. Simultaneously, the element will have no border on its left and right sides. This is a concise way to specify different border styles for an element in just one line of code.

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5) Think about a particularly visually appealing website that you have visited. What appealed to you about this website, and how could you adopt its strategy in your future work?



Be very strategic about what your doing :)


which vpn protocol encapsulates ppp traffic using the secure sockets layer (ssl) protocol?


The VPN protocol that encapsulates PPP traffic using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol is known as SSL VPN. SSL VPN enables secure remote access to a private network by establishing an encrypted tunnel between the user's device and the VPN gateway.

SSL VPN stands for Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network. It leverages SSL/TLS protocols to ensure secure communication and wraps PPP traffic within the SSL/TLS tunnel.

This approach allows users to securely transmit their PPP-based network traffic over the internet while benefiting from the encryption and authentication provided by SSL.

SSL VPNs are commonly used for remote access scenarios where users need to connect to a private network securely from external locations.

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The Administrator account should not be re-named, but should at least used a secure password. T/F



The Administrator account should not be renamed, as it can cause issues with certain system functions and permissions. However, it is important to use a secure password for the Administrator account to protect the system from unauthorized access and potential security breaches. Using a strong password can significantly enhance the security of any user account, including the Administrator account. It is advisable to use a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters in the password, and to avoid using easily guessable information such as names or common words. Regularly updating the password and implementing additional security measures, such as two-factor authentication, can further improve the security of the Administrator account.

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in the type of ultrasonic testing known as testing, one transducer transmits sound waves and another transducer picks up the signal at the other end of the tested part.


In ultrasonic testing, a transducer is used to transmit sound waves through a tested part, and another transducer is used to pick up the signal on the other end. This technique is known as through-transmission testing.

Ultrasonic testing is a non-destructive testing method that uses high-frequency sound waves to detect flaws or defects in materials. Through-transmission testing involves using two transducers, one to send the sound waves and the other to receive them. The tested part is placed between the two transducers, and the sound waves are transmitted through it.

Any changes or disruptions in the sound waves caused by defects in the material will be picked up by the receiving transducer. This technique is often used to test for cracks, voids, and other types of flaws in materials such as metal and composites.

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what response is expected when atc issues an ifr clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?


When Air Traffic Control (ATC) issues an IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft, the expected response from the pilots is to read back the clearance to ATC for verification and confirmation.

IFR clearances are instructions provided by ATC to pilots that outline the specific routing, altitude, and other parameters for the aircraft's instrument flight. These clearances ensure separation and orderly flow of air traffic.

Upon receiving the IFR clearance, pilots are required to read back the clearance to ATC. The read back should include repeating the clearance instructions as accurately as possible to confirm understanding and ensure that both parties have a clear and accurate understanding of the instructions.

The read back helps prevent miscommunication and ensures that the pilots have correctly interpreted the instructions provided by ATC. It allows ATC to identify any errors or misunderstandings promptly and make necessary corrections if needed.

By reading back the clearance, pilots demonstrate compliance with ATC instructions, maintain effective communication, and contribute to the safe and efficient operation of air traffic control services.

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script kiddie is an experienced hacker who uses his or her own tools or scripts. T/F?


So the statement "script kiddie is an experienced hacker who uses his or her own tools or scripts." is False.

How to find if the statement "script kiddie is an experienced hacker who uses his or her own tools or scripts" is true or not?

A script kiddie is typically an inexperienced or amateur hacker who lacks the technical knowledge and skills of an experienced hacker.

They rely on pre-existing hacking tools, scripts, or software developed by others to carry out their activities.

Script kiddies usually have limited understanding of the underlying concepts and mechanisms behind hacking techniques and instead rely on easily accessible tools to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems.

They may modify or use these tools without fully comprehending their functionality.

As a result, script kiddies are generally considered to be less skilled and knowledgeable compared to experienced hackers who possess a deep understanding of computer systems and security.

Therefore, "script kiddie is an experienced hacker who uses his or her own tools or scripts" is False

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the elements of an array are stored in __________ storage locations in the computer’s memory.


The elements of an array are stored in consecutive storage locations in the computer's memory. This means that when an array is created, the elements are allocated in memory in a contiguous manner.

Arrays are data structures that store a fixed-size sequence of elements of the same type. Each element is assigned a specific storage location represented by memory addresses.

The consecutive storage of array elements means that these memory addresses are sequential and contiguous. When an array is declared, the computer's memory allocates a block of memory to accommodate all the elements, with the first element stored at the initial memory address and subsequent elements following in consecutive addresses.

This allows for efficient access to array elements using their index values. Accessing an element involves a simple calculation based on the starting address and element size, enabling direct and constant-time access.

Consecutive storage facilitates efficient traversal and random access to array elements. It also simplifies memory management and addressing calculations, making array manipulation easier in programming languages.

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Overall, about one-third of all cases of PTSD improve within _____ months.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15


Inquire about shows that roughly one-third of all cases of post-traumatic stretch clutter (PTSD) appear advancement inside 12 months. Overall, about one-third of all cases of PTSD improve within b. 12 months.

What is the PTSD?

In any case, it is good to note that the course of PTSD can change essentially among people, and a few cases may require longer periods of time or proficient intercession to see enhancement.

Based on DSM-5, term of PTSD side effects shifts, with total recuperation happening in around 50% of grown-ups analyzed with PTSD inside three months of the traumatic occasion, but a few people stay symptomatic for longer than 12 months and in some cases for more than 50 a long time.

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what is the first step that should be taken when opening a computer case?


The first step when opening a computer case is to shut down the computer, unplug all cables, and then ground yourself to prevent electrostatic discharge.

Before diving into the process, it is essential to prioritize safety and ensure you are working in a static-free environment. To open the computer case, follow these steps:

1. Power off the computer: Ensure the computer is turned off and all external devices are disconnected, including the power cable, USB devices, and audio cables.

2. Ground yourself: Wear an anti-static wrist strap or touch a grounded metal object to discharge any static electricity that might be present on your body.

3. Locate the screws: Identify the screws holding the side panel of the computer case in place. They are usually found on the back of the case.

4. Remove the screws: Use a screwdriver to remove the screws carefully. Keep them in a safe place so you don't lose them.

5. Slide or remove the side panel: Depending on the case design, you will either slide the panel towards the back or lift it off entirely. This should expose the internal components of the computer.

Remember to handle all components with care to prevent damage, and ensure that you've discharged any static electricity before touching any internal parts.

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The asterisk (*) is the wildcard used to represent one and only one character in criteria.


The given statement "The asterisk (*) is the wildcard used to represent one and only one character in criteria" is FALSE because it is a wildcard symbol used to represent any number of characters (including zero) in a search or filtering criteria.

To represent exactly one character, you would typically use the question mark (?) wildcard.

Wildcards are useful in database searches, file searches, and other instances where you want to find items that match a specific pattern.

For a single character wildcard, you should use the question mark (?) symbol. This is often helpful in database queries and search engines to match multiple variations of a word or phrase while maintaining concise search criteria.

In summary, use the asterisk (*) to represent multiple characters and the question mark (?) to represent a single character in your search criteria.

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A(n) ____ printer is a color printer that produces photo-lab-quality pictures.


A(n) inkjet printer is a color printer that produces photo-lab-quality pictures.

Inkjet Printer: An inkjet printer is a type of printer that uses tiny droplets of ink to create images on paper. It works by propelling the ink onto the paper through a series of nozzles.

Color Printer: An inkjet printer is capable of printing in color, which means it can reproduce a wide range of colors to create vibrant and lifelike images.

Photo-Lab-Quality Pictures: The term "photo-lab-quality" refers to the level of print quality that closely resembles the output from a professional photo lab. Inkjet printers are known for their ability to produce high-resolution prints with excellent color accuracy, sharpness, and detail, making them suitable for printing photos that rival the quality of traditional photo lab prints.

Inkjet Technology: Inkjet printers utilize advanced printing technology that allows them to precisely control the placement of ink droplets, resulting in smooth gradients, fine details, and accurate color reproduction. They can produce prints with high resolution, typically measured in dots per inch (dpi), which contributes to the overall photo-lab-quality output.

Paper and Ink Quality: Achieving photo-lab-quality pictures also depends on using high-quality photo paper and ink cartridges specifically designed for photo printing. Inkjet printers often offer specialized photo paper options, such as glossy, matte, or semi-gloss, to enhance the final print output. The ink formulation in dedicated photo ink cartridges ensures color vibrancy, longevity, and resistance to fading.

Additional Features: Many inkjet printers come with additional features tailored for photo printing, such as the ability to print borderless photos, support for different paper sizes, and advanced color management settings. These features contribute to the overall quality and convenience of producing photo-lab-quality pictures.

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g. why is the recall about 0.5? ceis 312


The recall being around 0.5 means that the model is able to correctly identify around 50% of the positive cases.

This could be due to a variety of reasons such as a limited amount of data, a complex dataset, or a model that is not optimized for the specific task at hand. In order to improve the recall, one could consider adjusting the model's hyperparameters, increasing the amount of training data, or using a different type of model altogether. Ultimately, the recall is an important metric to consider when evaluating the performance of a model as it measures the model's ability to correctly identify relevant information. In the context of CEIS 312, understanding recall and other evaluation metrics is crucial for developing effective machine learning models.

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Colonial Adventure Tours organizes day-long guided trips to ____. a. Colorado. b. New England. c. Virginia.


Colonial Adventure Tours organizes day-long guided trips to Colorado, New England, and Virginia.

So, the correct answer is A, B and C.

It offers day-long guided trips to three different locations: Colorado, New England, and Virginia.

The company provides a unique opportunity for travelers to explore the historical significance and natural beauty of these regions.

With experienced guides leading the way, visitors can immerse themselves in the culture and history of each location.

Whether it's hiking through the Rocky Mountains, visiting quaint New England towns, or touring historical landmarks in Virginia, Colonial Adventure Tours has something to offer for every type of traveler.

Each trip is carefully curated to provide an unforgettable experience and a deeper appreciation for the diversity and beauty of the United States.

Hence, the answer of the question is A, B and C.

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Run the Performance Analyzer on all database objects at once. Accept the recommendation and allow Access to make the change for you. When you are finished, close the Performance Analyzer.
In the Database Tools Ribbon Tab in the Analyze Ribbon Group, you clicked the Analyze Performance button. You clicked the All Object Types tab. Inside the Performance Analyzer dialog, you clicked the Select All button, clicked the OK button. Inside the Performance Analyzer dialog from the Queries list, you selected Table 'TuitionRates': Add an index to field(s) 'Department'. Inside the Performance Analyzer dialog, you clicked the Optimize button, clicked the Close button.


Used Performance Analyzer to optimize database performance.

How to optimize database performance in Access?

The given statement describes a series of steps performed in Microsoft Access using the Performance Analyzer tool to analyze and optimize the performance of database objects. Here is a more detailed explanation of the steps:

Open the Performance Analyzer: The Performance Analyzer tool is accessed from the Database Tools ribbon tab in Microsoft Access.Analyze Performance: Clicking the "Analyze Performance" button initiates the performance analysis process.Select All Object Types: Within the Performance Analyzer dialog, there is a tab labeled "All Object Types." This tab allows you to choose to analyze all types of database objects, such as tables, queries, forms, and reports.Select All Objects: Clicking the "Select All" button ensures that all database objects are included in the performance analysis.Confirm and Proceed: After selecting all objects, click the "OK" button to proceed with the performance analysis.Identify Performance Recommendations: The Performance Analyzer dialog displays a list of recommendations based on the analysis. These recommendations suggest optimizations for improving the performance of the selected database objects.Optimize the TuitionRates Table: From the list of recommendations, the specific recommendation for the "TuitionRates" table is selected. It suggests adding an index to the "Department" field of the table. Adding an index can enhance the performance of queries that involve the "Department" field.Execute Optimization: Clicking the "Optimize" button executes the recommended optimization, adding an index to the specified field of the "TuitionRates" table.Close the Performance Analyzer: After applying the optimization, click the "Close" button to exit the Performance Analyzer dialog.

By following these steps, you can analyze the performance of database objects, receive recommendations for optimization, and implement the suggested changes to enhance the overall performance of the database.

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which lead monitors an electrode at the 4th intercostal space on the left side of the sternum?


The lead that monitors an electrode at the 4th intercostal space on the left side of the sternum is V1.

In a standard 12-lead ECG, there are six precordial leads (V1-V6), which are placed on the chest to measure the electrical activity of the heart from different angles.

These leads help to detect any abnormalities or irregularities in the heart's functioning.V1 is the first precordial lead and is placed in the 4th intercostal space, just to the right of the sternum. This positioning allows V1 to effectively monitor the electrical activity in that specific area of the heart. By analyzing the data from V1 and the other precordial leads, healthcare professionals can diagnose various heart conditions and monitor the overall cardiac health of a patient.It's important to remember that the placement of electrodes is crucial for obtaining accurate results from an ECG. Proper electrode placement ensures that the electrical signals from the heart are effectively captured, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's cardiac health.In summary, the lead that monitors an electrode at the 4th intercostal space on the left side of the sternum is V1, which is one of the six precordial leads in a standard 12-lead ECG. This lead placement allows for accurate monitoring of the heart's electrical activity and assists in diagnosing various cardiac conditions.

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A ____ allows hackers to gain access to important code or information in a software program.
Choose matching definition
security hole
attack surface
vulnerability surface
security patch


A security hole allows hackers to gain access to important code or information in a software program. Option A, security hole, is the correct answer.

Security holes, also known as vulnerabilities, are weaknesses or flaws in software code that can be exploited by hackers to gain unauthorized access to systems or steal sensitive information. These vulnerabilities can be caused by coding errors, outdated software, or insufficient security measures. Hackers use a variety of techniques to exploit security holes, such as malware, viruses, and other malicious code. Option A, security hole, is the correct answer.

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thinking about your own life can help you spot symbols in films. select one: true false


When we watch a film, we often relate to the characters and their experiences on a personal level. True statement.

Our own life experiences can influence how we interpret the symbols and themes in a film. For example, if we have gone through a difficult time in our life, we may identify with a character who is struggling with similar issues in the movie.

In this case, we may notice symbols or themes in the film that represent hope, perseverance, or resilience, which can help us make sense of our own experiences. Similarly, if we have a particular interest or passion, such as art or music, we may be drawn to films that explore these themes and are more likely to notice the symbols and metaphors that relate to these areas.Moreover, our cultural background, personal beliefs, and values can also play a role in how we interpret the symbols in a film. For instance, if we grew up in a particular religion or culture, we may be more sensitive to symbols and themes that are associated with these traditions, such as the use of light and darkness in Christian imagery.Therefore, reflecting on our own life experiences can help us to recognize the symbols and themes in a film that relate to our personal interests, cultural background, and values. This can deepen our understanding and appreciation of the film, and help us to connect with it on a more personal level.

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Digital citizenship includes _____.

sharing others' information

intercepting hackers

infringing on others’ rights

being safe online


Being safe online…good luck!

Which of the following statements is TRUE about losses due to computer security threats?
a. Surveys on computer crimes provide accurate results since they use standard parameters to measure and tally computer crime costs.
b. Losses due to natural disasters can be measured accurately.
c. Losses due to human error are insignificant.
d. Surveys suggest that some organizations do not report all their computer crime losses, and some will not report such losses at all.
e. Losses due to hacking may be overstated.


The correct answer is The TRUE statement about losses due to computer security threats is:d.

Surveys suggest that some organizations do not report all their computer crime losses, and some will not report such losses at all.This is because many organizations are reluctant to report security incidents, particularly those that result in financial losses or reputational damage. This reluctance may stem from concerns about negative publicity, legal liability, or competitive disadvantage. As a result, surveys on computer crimes may not capture the full extent of losses due to computer security threats, and the actual losses may be higher than what is reported.

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ace hardware store sells two product categories, tools and paint products. information pertaining to its year-end inventory is as follows:


Ace Hardware Store has a year-end inventory of 500 tools and 800 paint products, with a respective cost of $15,000 and $16,000.

Ace Hardware Store has a total year-end inventory of 1,300 units, with a total cost of $31,000. This information can be useful for financial reporting and inventory management purposes. By keeping track of inventory levels and costs, the store can determine which products are selling well and which ones need to be restocked. Additionally, the cost information can help the store determine pricing strategies and identify opportunities to improve profitability. Overall, accurate and up-to-date inventory data is critical for effective retail operations.

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how much memory is supported by the 64-bit version of windows 10 home?


The 64-bit version of Windows 10 Home supports a maximum of 128 GB of memory.

The 64-bit version of an operating system allows for larger memory addressing, enabling the system to access and utilize more memory compared to the 32-bit version.

In the case of Windows 10 Home, the 64-bit version has a maximum memory limit of 128 GB.

This means that the operating system can recognize and use up to 128 GB of RAM (Random Access Memory) for various tasks and processes.

It's important to note that the actual amount of memory usable by the system may be slightly lower due to system overhead and reserved memory for hardware and system resources.

The memory limit of 128 GB is specific to the Windows 10 Home edition. Other editions of Windows 10, such as Pro or Enterprise, may have different memory limits based on their respective licensing and feature sets.

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last-click attribution will likely exaggerate the value of traffic that comes from where? a. Offline advertising b. Search engines c. Banner ads d. Social Media


Last-click attribution will likely exaggerate the value of traffic that comes from search engines. Option B is the correct answer.

Last-click attribution is a method of attributing a conversion to the last click or interaction that a user had before making a purchase or performing a desired action. This method can exaggerate the value of traffic that comes from search engines because it gives all the credit for the conversion to the last click on a search engine ad, even if the user was exposed to the product or brand through other channels such as offline advertising, banner ads, or social media.

As a result, marketers need to use other attribution models, such as multi-touch attribution, to get a more accurate view of the effectiveness of their marketing efforts.

Option B is the correct answer.

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The Three Basic Types Of Subnetworks Are ____, Packet-switched, And Broadcast.a. Multicast C. Circuit-switchedb. (2024)


What are the two types of packet switched networks are the datagram and the ____? ›

There are two types of packet-switched networks: datagram networks and virtual-circuit networks .

What is a network that expands beyond a metropolitan area? ›

WAN Overview

Wide Area Networks (WANs) are vast, interconnected networks that connect multiple LANs and MANs across broad distances. These expansive systems span entire countries or continents and have lower data transfer speeds than local network options.

Which of the following was the first routing algorithm used within the Internet was called a distance vector routing algorithm? ›

The term distance vector refers to the fact that the protocol manipulates vectors (arrays) of distances to other nodes in the network. The distance vector algorithm was the original ARPANET routing algorithm and was implemented more widely in local area networks with the Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

Which area networks can cover large geographic distances including the entire earth? ›

A wide area network, or WAN, occupies a very large area, such as an entire country or the entire world. A WAN can contain multiple smaller networks, such as LANs or MANs.

How many types of packets are there? ›

You can choose from four basic Internet packet protocols: raw IP, ICMP, UDP (unreliable messaging), and TCP (streaming) all layered on top of the physical network (see Figure 3.1).

What is the metropolitan area network an extension of? ›

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that connects computers within a metropolitan area, which could be a single large city, multiple cities and towns, or any given large area with multiple buildings. A MAN is larger than a local area network (LAN) but smaller than a wide area network (WAN).

What are examples of wide area networks? ›

WAN Examples

A bank, including its branch offices and ATM machines, is another example of an organization using a WAN. The branches may be in multiple U.S. states, or even global locations, but they are all linked through various secure connections. Both bank employees and customers are users.

Which of the following was the first packet switching network? ›

The U.S. Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET) was the first public packet-switched computer network. It was first used in 1969 and finally decommissioned in 1989.

What are the two types of routing algorithms? ›

There are two main categories of routing algorithms in computer networks: adaptive and non-adaptive routing algorithms. Adaptive routing algorithms adjust the routing decisions based on network conditions, whereas non-adaptive routing algorithms use a fixed set of rules to determine the path of data packets.

What is the most basic ideas for routing in the internet is what is called a distance vector? ›

Distance vector routing works by having each node maintain a routing table with the minimum distance to reach every other node. Nodes share their routing tables with immediate neighbors periodically or when changes occur, allowing each node to learn optimal routes throughout the network.

What is the largest computer network that extends over a large geographic distance? ›

The Wide Area Network (WAN) is designed to connect devices over large distances like states or between countries. The connection is wireless in most cases and uses radio towers for communication. The WAN network can be made up of multiple LAN and MAN networks.

Which network covers the smallest geographic area? ›

One of the major differences is the geographical area they cover, i.e. LAN covers the smallest area, MAN covers an area larger than LAN and WAN comprises the largest of all. There are other types of Computer Networks also, like : PAN (Personal Area Network) SAN (Storage Area Network)

Which area network covers a large geographical area _____? ›

A network covering a large geographic area is usually referred to as a Wide Area Network(WAN).

What are the two approaches of packet-switched network? ›

Packet switching may be classified into connectionless packet switching, also known as datagram switching, and connection-oriented packet switching, also known as virtual circuit switching. Examples of connectionless systems are Ethernet, Internet Protocol (IP), and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

What are the two primary types of network data packets? ›

Expert-Verified Answer. The two primary types of network data packets are the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packet and the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) packet.

What are the two parts of a data packet? ›

Packets consist of two portions: the header and the payload.

What are the two parts of the IP packet? ›

You can think of IP packets like postal letters: the header is the envelope with all the routing information that's needed by the post office, and the payload is the letter that's read only by the recipient.


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